about jesus the galilean
(eg that his real father
was a roman centurion called 'panther')
but also about
an egyptian healer
of the same name
about the same time
who had magical tattoos
so is it possible that 'mark'
in gathering stories a generation later
for his authoritative gospel
managed to confuse these two
in fact to conflate them
'jesus a' the uncharismatic loner
at odds with jewish law
(his only 'disciple' a backstabbing judas)
whose execution was shattering as john brown's
'jesus b' the crowdpleasing miracleworker
who called gentiles dogs?
.
